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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 10:24

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why should the US public listen to Lauren Boebert, the queen of hypocrisy tell us, "We need morals back in our nation" when her real-time video is the heartbeat of immoral? Why does her audio not match her video?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If my heart stopped beating, would I have enough energy to walk out into the other room 20 ft away before I passed out and died?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.